Pass Your NCLEX-RN Exam Easily - Real NCLEX-RN Practice Dump Updated Jan 05, 2022
2022 Realistic Verified Free NCLEX NCLEX-RN Exam Questions
Get to know more about the importance of the exam
Nursing programs require students to pass the NCLEX-RN exam before graduation. This is because most states only allow one or two years of clinical experience before licensing as a registered nurse. In order to be eligible to take the NCLEX-RN exam, applicants must have graduated from an approved nursing program. The scope of the exam is based on what you learned in nursing school. Exam braindumps has a study guide. Each part is designed to test the knowledge required for each of the major categories. Brainfunctions that make a nurse a good practitioner are also tested. Visit killexams are the best resource to help students prepare for the NCLEX-RN® exam. NCLEX-RN Dumps provide study guides, question explanations, and practice exams. These are excellent for students who are preparing for the NCLEX-RN exam. It's important to know what to expect on the exam.
NEW QUESTION 436
A client is receiving IV morphine 2 days after colorectal surgery. Which of the following observations indicate that he may be becoming drug dependent?
- A. He is asleep 30 minutes after receiving the IV morphine.
- B. The client requests pain medicine every 4 hours.
- C. He asks for pain medication although his blood pressure and pulse rate are normal.
- D. He is euphoric for about an hour after each injection.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Frequent requests for pain medication do not necessarily indicate drug dependence after complex surgeries such as colorectal surgery. (B) Sleeping after receiving IV morphine is not an unexpected effect because the pain is relieved. (C) A person may be in pain even with normal vital signs. (D) A subtle sign of drug dependency is the tendency for the person to appear more euphoric than relieved of pain.
NEW QUESTION 437
Which of the following would differentiate acute from chronic respiratory acidosis in the assessment of the trauma client?
- A. Decreased PaO2
- B. Increased HCO3
- C. Decreased base excess
- D. Increased PaCO2
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Increased CO2 will occur in both acute and chronic respiratory acidosis. (B) Hypoxia does not determine acid-base status. (C) Elevation of HCO3 is a compensatory mechanism in acidosis that occurs almost immediately, but it takes hours to show any effect and days to reach maximum compensation. Renal disease and diuretic therapy may impair the ability of the kidneys to compensate. (D) Base excess is a nonrespiratory contributor to acid-base balance. It would increase to compensate for acidosis.
NEW QUESTION 438
Which of the following blood gas parameters primarily reflects respiratory function?
- A. HCO3
- B. CO2 content of the blood
- C. Base excess
- D. PCO2
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) The lungs are responsible for regulation of CO2, and this parameter primarily reflects respiratory function.
(B) CO2 content of the blood is an indirect measure of respiratory function. (C) HCO3 is a measure of kidney function only and is important in acid-base balance. (D) Base excess represents the excess of HCO3 and is not reflective of respiratory function.
NEW QUESTION 439
A client has begun to exhibit signs of alcohol withdrawal. Her blood pressure has risen from 120/60 to 190/100, pulse is increased from 88 to 110 bpm, and she is irritable and agitated and has gross motor tremors of the hands. The nurse notifies the doctor. The nurse can anticipate that the doctor will order which of the following?
- A. A phenothiazine such as chlorpromazine (Thorazine)
- B. A tricyclic antidepressant such as amitriptyline (Elavil)
- C. An opiate such as propoxyphene napsylate (Darvocet)
- D. A benzodiazepine such as chlordiazepoxide (Librium)
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set D
Explanation:
(A) This answer is incorrect. Benzodiazepines are drugs of choice for alcohol withdrawal. (B) This answer is correct. The drug has a sedative effect, is safe, and has an anticonvulsant effect.(C) This answer is incorrect.
Amitriptyline is an antidepressant. (D) This answer is incorrect. Chlorpromazine is most effective in psychotic disorders.
NEW QUESTION 440
The nurse instructs a client on the difference between true labor and false labor. The nurse explains, "In true labor:
- A. The fetus does not descend."
- B. The cervix does not dilate."
- C. Uterine contractions will weaken with walking."
- D. Uterine contractions will strengthen with walking."
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Uterine contractions increase with activity. (B) Walking will increase the strength and regularity of uterine contractions in true labor. (C) Uterine contractions that are strong and regular facilitate cervical dilation. (D) Regular, strong uterine contractions, as in true labor, result in fetal descent.
NEW QUESTION 441
A 35-year-old client is receiving psychopharmacological treatment of his major depression with tranylcypromine sulfate (Parnate), a monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor. The nurse teaches the client that while he is taking this type of antidepressant, he needs to restrict his dietary intake of:
- A. Saturated fats
- B. Potassium-rich foods
- C. Tryptophan
- D. Tyramine
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) The client may need to avoid some potassium-rich foods (such as bananas, raisins, etc.). However, this is not because of the potassium content of these foods. (B) Tryptophan is an essential amino acid that is present in high concentrations in animal and fish protein. (C) The client will need to watch his dietary intake of tyramine. Tyramine is a by-product of the conversion of tyrosine to epinephrine. Tyramine is found in a variety of foods and beverages, ranging from aged cheese to caffeine drinks. Ingestion of tyramine-rich foods while taking a MAO inhibitor may lead to an increase in blood pressure and/or a life- threatening hypertensive crisis. (D) To maintain a healthy lifestyle, restriction of dietary saturated fats is advisable.
NEW QUESTION 442
On morning rounds, the nurse found a manic-depressive client who is taking lithium in a confused mental state, vomiting, twitching, and exhibiting a coarse hand tremor. Which one of the following nursing actions is essential at this time?
- A. Withhold her lithium, and report her symptoms to the physician.
- B. Administer her next dosage of lithium, and then call the physician.
- C. Place her on NPO to decrease the excretion of lithium from her body, and call the physician.
- D. Contact the lab and request a lithium level in 30 minutes, and call the physician.
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) The client has lithium toxicity, and the nurse must withhold further dosages. (B) Because of her level of toxicity, further lithium could cause coma and death. The nurse needs further orders from the physician to stabilize the client's lithium level. (C) Ensuring adequate intake of sodium chloride will promote excretion of lithium and will assist in managing the client's lithiumtoxicity. (D) A lithium blood level must be drawn immediately to determine the seriousness of the toxicity and to provide the physician with data for medical orders.
NEW QUESTION 443
A client returns to the cardiovascular intensive care unit following his coronary artery bypass graft. In planning his care, the most important electrolyte the nurse needs to monitor will be:
- A. Potassium
- B. HCO3
- C. Sodium
- D. Chloride
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set D
Explanation:
(A) Chloride, HCO3, and sodium will need to be monitored, but monitoring these electrolytes is not as important as potassium monitoring. (B) Chloride, HCO3, and sodium will need to be monitored, but monitoring these electrolytes is not as important as potassium monitoring. (C) Potassium will need to be closely monitored because of its effects on the heart. Hypokalemia could result in supraventricular tachyarrhythmias. (D) Chloride, HCO3, and sodium will need to be monitored, but monitoring these electrolytes is not as important as potassium monitoring.
NEW QUESTION 444
Which of the following menu choices would indicate that a client with pressure ulcers understands the role diet plays in restoring her albumin levels?
- A. Bran flakes with fresh peaches
- B. Broiled fish with rice
- C. Lasagna with garlic bread
- D. Cauliflower and lettuce salad
Answer: B
Explanation:
(A) Broiled fish and rice are both excellent sources of protein. (B) Fresh fruits are not a good source of protein. (C) Foods in the bread group are not high in protein. (D) Most vegetables are not high in protein; peas and beans are the major vegetables higher in protein.
NEW QUESTION 445
A female client has a chest tube placed. It is accidentally pulled out of the intrapleural space when she is ambulating. The first action the nurse should take is to:
- A. Instruct the client to cough deeply to re-expand her lung
- B. Apply a petrolatum dressing over the site
- C. Put on sterile gloves and replace the tube
- D. Auscultate the lung to determine if she needs the tube replaced
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) This action is inappropriate. Coughing will not re-expand the lung and could result in further harm. (B) This action is a medical procedure, not a nursing procedure. (C) An occlusive dressing will prevent further air leak until the physician institutes further treatment. (D) The decision to reinsert the tube is a medical decision, not a nursing one.
NEW QUESTION 446
A 24-year-old client presents to the emergency department protesting "I am God." The nurse identifies this as a:
- A. Hallucination
- B. Delusion
- C. Illusion
- D. Conversion
Answer: B
Explanation:
(A) Delusion is a false belief. (B) Illusion is the misrepresentation of a real, external sensory experience. (C) Hallucination is a false sensory perception involving any of the senses. (D) Conversion is the expression of intrapsychic conflict through sensory or motor manifestations.
NEW QUESTION 447
The nurse assists a client with advanced emphysema to the bathroom. The client becomes extremely short of breath while returning to bed. The nurse should:
- A. Encourage pursed-lip breathing
- B. Place him in a lateral Sims' position
- C. Increase his nasal O2 to 6 L/min
- D. Have him breathe into a paper bag
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Giving too high a concentration of O2 to a client with em-physema may remove his stimulus to breathe.
(B) The client should sit forward with his hands on his knees or an overbed table and with shoulders elevated.
(C) Pursed-lip breathing helps the client to blow off CO2 and to keep air passages open. (D) Covering the face of a client extremely short of breath may cause anxiety and further increase dyspnea.
NEW QUESTION 448
A parent told the public health nurse that her 6-year-old son has been taking tetracycline for a chronic skin condition. The parent asked if this could cause any problems for the child. What should the nurse explain to the parent?
- A. Giving tetracycline to a child younger than 8 years may cause permanent staining of his teeth.
- B. If you give tetracycline with milk, it may be absorbed readily.
- C. The medication should be given to adults, not children.
- D. Secondary infections of chronic skin disorders do not respond to antibiotics.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Tetracycline should be avoided during tooth development because it interferes with enamel formation and dental pigmentation. (B) Milk interferes with the absorption of tetracyclines. (C) Children older than 9 years or past the tooth development stage may be given tetracycline. (D) Secondary infections of chronic skin disorders may respond to antibiotics such as penicillin or tetracyclines.
NEW QUESTION 449
A 47-year-old client comes to the emergency department complaining of moderate flank, abdominal, and testicular pain with nausea of 4 hours' duration. After physical examination and obtaining the client's history, the physician suspects urethral obstruction by calculi. The nurse realizes that the physician will order which one of the following diagnostic studies to best confirm the diagnosis?
- A. Ureterolithotomy
- B. Intravenous pyelogram with excretory urogram
- C. Cystoscopy
- D. Kidneys, ureter, bladder, x-ray of abdomen
Answer: B
Explanation:
(A) Cystoscopy is an endoscopic procedure that uses an instrument (a cystoscope) to visualize the internal bladder and ureter structures and to capture and remove an obstructing stone. (B) Kidney, ureter, bladder x-ray is used to outline gross structural changes in the kidneys, ureter, and bladder and will determine the general location of a stone. (C) An intravenous pyelogram with excretory urogram is used to visualize the kidneys, kidney pelvis, ureters, and bladder. This procedure is used specifically to determine whether urethral obstruction is partial or complete; it shows the exact location of the stone and dilation of the ureter above the stone. (D) Ureterolithotomy is a surgical procedure in which the ureter is incised and the stone is manually removed because the stone is unable to pass through the ureter independently.
NEW QUESTION 450
A client is diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis. The nurse should be prepared to administer which of the following IV solutions?
- A. D5in lactated Ringer's
- B. D5in normal saline
- C. 0.9 normal saline
- D. D5W
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) D5in normal saline would increase serum glucose. (B) D5W would increase serum glucose. (C) A concentration of 0.9 NS is used to correct extracellular fluid depletion. (D) D5in Ringer's lactate would increase serum glucose.
NEW QUESTION 451
The nurse notes scattered crackles in both lungs and 1+ pitting edema when assessing a cardiac client.
The physician is notified and orders furosemide (Lasix) 80 mg IV push stat. Which of the following diagnostic studies is monitored to assess for a major complication of this therapy?
- A. Serum electrolytes
- B. Complete blood count
- C. 12-Lead ECG
- D. Arterial blood gases
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Furosemide, a potassium-depleting diuretic, inhibits the reabsorption of sodium and chloride from the loop of Henle and the distal renal tubules. Serum electrolytes are monitored for hypokalemia. (B) Severe acid-base imbalances influence the movement of potassium into and out of the cells, but arterial blood gases to not measure the serum potassium level. (C) Furosemide is a potassium-depleting diuretic. A complete blood count does not reflect potassium levels. (D) Abnormalities in potassium (both hyperkalemia and hypokalemia) are reflected in ECG changes, but these changes do not occur until the abnormality is severe.
NEW QUESTION 452
Proper positioning for the child who is in Bryant's traction is:
- A. The affected leg extended with slight hip flexion
- B. Both legs extended, and the hips are not flexed
- C. Both hips and knees maintained at a 90-degree flexion angle, and the back flat on the bed
- D. Both hips flexed at a 90-degree angle with the knees extended and the buttocks elevated off the bed
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) The child's weight supplies the countertraction for Bryant's traction; the buttocks are slightly elevated off the bed, and the hips are flexed at a 90-degree angle. Both legs are suspended by skin traction. (B) The child in Buck's extension traction maintains the legs extended and parallel to the bed. (C) The child in Russell traction maintains hip flexion of the affected leg at the prescribed angle with the leg extended. (D) The child in "90-90" traction maintains both hips and knees at a 90-degree flexion angle and the back is flat on the bed.
NEW QUESTION 453
A client had abdominal surgery this morning. The nurse notices that there is a small amount of bloody drainage on his surgical dressing. The nurse would document this as what type of drainage?
- A. Sanguinous
- B. Catarrhal
- C. Serosanguinous
- D. Purulent
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Drainage from a surgical incision usually proceeds from sanguinous to serosanguinous. (B) Purulent drainage usually indicates infection and should not be seen initially from a surgical incision. (C) Drainage from a surgical incision is initially sanguinous, proceeding to serosanguinous, and then to serous. (D) Catarrhal is a type of exudate seen in upper respiratory infections, not in surgical incisions.
NEW QUESTION 454
Medication is administered to a client who has been placed in restraints after a sudden violent episode, and his EPSs subside. Restraints can be removed when:
- A. The physician orders it
- B. The nurse deems that removal of restraints is necessary
- C. The violent behavior subsides, and the client agrees to behave
- D. A therapeutic alliance has been established, and violent behavior subsides
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) The physicianmayorder release of restraints, but prior to that, the client must meet criteria for release. (B) While the client is still restrained, but after violent behavior has subsided, a therapeutic bridge is built. This alliance encourages dialogue between nurse and client, allowing the client to determine causative factors, feelings prior to loss of control, and adaptive alternatives to violence. (C) If the client only "agrees to behave" after violent behavior subsides, he has developed no insight into cause and effect of violence or his response to stress. (D)Removal of restraints occurs only when the client meets the criteria for release, not just because the nurse says it is necessary.
NEW QUESTION 455
A 67-year-old client will be undergoing a coronary arteriography in the morning. Client teaching about postprocedure nursing care should include that:
- A. Some oozing of blood at the arterial puncture site is normal
- B. The leg used for arterial puncture should be kept straight for 8-12 hours
- C. He will be kept NPO for 8-12 hours
- D. Bed rest with bathroom privileges will be ordered
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set C
Explanation:
(A) Bed rest will be ordered for 8-12 hours postprocedure. Flexing of the leg at the arterial puncture site will occur if the client gets out of bed, and this is contraindicated after arteriography. (B) The client will be able to eat as soon as he is alert enough to swallow safely and that will depend on what medications are used for sedation during the procedure. (C) Oozing at the arterial puncture site is not normal and should be closely evaluated. (D) The leg where the arterial puncture occurred must be kept straight for 8-12 hours to minimize the risk of bleeding.
NEW QUESTION 456
A 14-year-old boy fell off his bike while "popping a wheelie" on the dirt trails. He has sustained a head injury with laceration of his scalp over his temporal lobe. If he were to complain of headache during the first 24 hours of his hospitalization, the nurse would:
- A. Have the client describe his headache every 15 minutes
- B. Ask the physician to order a sedative
- C. Offer diversionary activities
- D. Increase his fluid intake to 3000 mL/24 hr
Answer: C
Explanation:
(A) CNS depressants are not given for headache due to head injury because they would mask changes in neurological status and because they could further depress the CNS. (B) The client should not be asked to think about his headache every 15 minutes. (C) Fluid intake should be normal or restricted for a client with a head injury. Normal fluid intake for a 14 year old is about 2000-2400 mL daily. (D) Diversion may help the child to focus on a pleasant activity instead of on his headache.
NEW QUESTION 457
When planning care for the passive-aggressive client, the nurse includes the following goal:
- A. Allow the client to have time away from therapeutic responsibilities.
- B. Allow the client to use humor, because this may be the only way this client can express self.
- C. Allow the client to express anger by using "I" messages, such as "I was angry when . . .," etc.
- D. Allow the client to give excuses if he forgets to give staff information.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Ceasing to use humor and sarcasm is a more appropriate goal, because this client uses these behaviors covertly to express aggression instead of being open with anger. (B) Use of "I" messages demonstrates proper use of assertive behavior to express anger instead of passive-aggressive behavior. (C) Client is expected to complete share of work in therapeutic community because he has often obstructed other's efforts by failing to do his share. (D) Client has used conveniently forgetting or withholding information as a passive-aggressive behavior, which is not acceptable.
NEW QUESTION 458
Prior to administering digoxin to a client with congestive heart failure, the nurse needs to assess:
- A. Radial pulse for 2 minutes
- B. Apical pulse for 1 minute
- C. Respiratory rate for 1 minute
- D. Radial pulse for 1 minute
Answer: B
Explanation:
(A) Respiratory rate is not directly affected by digoxin therapy. (B) A radial pulse is not as accurate as an apical pulse. Dysrhythmias may not be detected. (C) A radial pulse is not as accurate as an apical pulse, regardless of assessment time. (D) Apical pulse should be measured for 1-minute prior to digoxin administration. Digoxin decreases the heart rate. Digoxin should be withheld if apical rates are <60 bpm or >120 bpm.
NEW QUESTION 459
A client was not using his seat belt when involved in a car accident. He fractured ribs 5, 6, and 7 on the left and developed a left pneumothorax. Assessment findings include:
- A. Crackles and paradoxical chest wall movement
- B. Decreased breath sounds on the left and chest pain with movement
- C. Wheezing and dry cough
- D. Rhonchi and frothy sputum
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Crackles are caused by air moving through moisture in the small airways and occur with pulmonary edema. Paradoxical chest wall movement occurs with flail chest when a segment of the thorax moves outward on inspiration and inward on expiration. (B) Decreased breath sounds occur when a lung is collapsed or partially collapsed. Chest pain with movement occurs with rib fractures. (C) Rhonchi are caused by air moving through large fluid-filled airways. Frothy sputum may occur with pulmonary edema.
(D) Wheezing is caused by fluid in large airways already narrowed by mucus or bronchospasm. Dry cough could indicate a cardiac problem.
NEW QUESTION 460
......
For more info read reference:
NCLEX-RN Real Exam Questions and Answers FREE: https://www.certkingdompdf.com/NCLEX-RN-latest-certkingdom-dumps.html
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions | Real NCLEX-RN Practice Dumps: https://drive.google.com/open?id=19YZc0flERSjIL9Gfxd-KWM2luSYWsHvp