[Nov-2024] CIPT Dumps Full Questions - Information Privacy Technologist Exam Study Guide [Q57-Q77]

Share

[Nov-2024] CIPT Dumps Full Questions - Information Privacy Technologist Exam Study Guide

Exam Questions and Answers for CIPT Study Guide

NEW QUESTION # 57
What is the potential advantage of homomorphic encryption?

  • A. Ciphertext size decreases as the security level increases.
  • B. It makes data impenetrable to attacks.
  • C. It allows greater security and faster processing times.
  • D. Encrypted information can be analyzed without decrypting it first.

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 58
A key principle of an effective privacy policy is that it should be?

  • A. Written in enough detail to cover the majority of likely scenarios.
  • B. Designed primarily by the organization's lawyers.
  • C. Made general enough to maximize flexibility in its application.
  • D. Presented with external parties as the intended audience.

Answer: D

Explanation:
A key principle of an effective privacy policy is that it should be presented with external parties as the intended audience1. This means that the privacy policy should be clear, easily understandable, and accessible to anyone who interacts with the organization or its services. The privacy policy should also inform external parties about how their personal data is collected, processed, stored, shared, and protected by the organization2. The other options are not principles of an effective privacy policy, but rather potential pitfalls or limitations.


NEW QUESTION # 59
Value Sensitive Design (VSD) focuses on which of the following?

  • A. Privacy and human rights.
  • B. Principles and standards.
  • C. Quality and benefit.
  • D. Ethics and morality.

Answer: D

Explanation:
* Option A (Quality and benefit): While quality and benefit are important, they do not capture the core focus of VSD, which is more concerned with ethical considerations rather than purely functional or performance-based attributes.
* Option B (Ethics and morality): VSD primarily focuses on incorporating ethical and moral values into technology design. This involves considering the impacts on human values such as privacy, autonomy, and fairness.
* Option C (Principles and standards): While principles and standards are relevant, they do not specifically encapsulate the ethical dimension that VSD emphasizes.
* Option D (Privacy and human rights): While privacy and human rights are important aspects of VSD, the approach is broader, encompassing various ethical and moral values beyond just privacy and human rights.
References:
* Value Sensitive Design literature by Batya Friedman and Peter Kahn.
* Studies on integrating ethical considerations into design processes (e.g., "Value Sensitive Design:
Theory and Methods" by Friedman, Kahn, and Borning).
Conclusion: Value Sensitive Design (VSD) focuses on ethics and morality (Option B), ensuring that technology development incorporates ethical considerations and respects human values.


NEW QUESTION # 60
Which of the following is NOT a valid basis for data retention?

  • A. Size of the data.
  • B. Last time the data was accessed.
  • C. Type of the data.
  • D. Location of the data.

Answer: B

Explanation:
the last time the data was accessed is not a valid basis for data retention.


NEW QUESTION # 61
it Is Important for a privacy technologist to understand dark patterns In order to reduce the risk of which of the following?

  • A. Manipulation of a user's choice.
  • B. Discrimination from profiling.
  • C. Illicit collection of personal data.
  • D. Breaches of an individual's data.

Answer: A

Explanation:
it is important for a privacy technologist to understand dark patterns in order to reduce the risk of manipulation of a user's choice. Dark patterns are user interface design choices that are intended to manipulate users into taking actions they might not otherwise take.


NEW QUESTION # 62
Which of the following most embodies the principle of Data Protection by Default?

  • A. An electronic teddy bear with built-in voice recognition that only responds to its owner's voice.
  • B. A messaging app for high school students that uses HTTPS to communicate with the server.
  • C. A website that has an opt-in form for marketing emails when registering to download a whitepaper.
  • D. An internet forum for victims of domestic violence that allows anonymous posts without registration.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation


NEW QUESTION # 63
What is the main privacy threat posed by Radio Frequency Identification (RFID)?

  • A. RFID can be utilized to spoof identification details
  • B. RFID can be utilized to gam unauthorized access to an individual's device
  • C. RFID can be utilized to read information from a device without the user's knowledge
  • D. RFID can be utilized to track people or consumer products

Answer: D

Explanation:
The main privacy threat posed by Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) technology is its ability to track people or consumer products without their knowledge. RFID tags can be read from a distance without the individual's consent, potentially leading to unauthorized surveillance and tracking. This capability raises significant privacy concerns, especially in contexts where individuals are unaware that they are being monitored or that their movements and interactions with products are being recorded. (Reference: IAPP CIPT Study Guide, Chapter on Emerging Technologies and Privacy)


NEW QUESTION # 64
SCENARIO
Clean-Q is a company that offers house-hold and office cleaning services. The company receives requests from consumers via their website and telephone, to book cleaning services. Based on the type and size of service, Clean-Q then contracts individuals that are registered on its resource database - currently managed in-house by Clean-Q IT Support. Because of Clean-Q's business model, resources are contracted as needed instead of permanently employed.
The table below indicates some of the personal information Clean-Q requires as part of its business operations:

Clean-Q has an internal employee base of about 30 people. A recent privacy compliance exercise has been conducted to align employee data management and human resource functions with applicable data protection regulation. Therefore, the Clean-Q permanent employee base is not included as part of this scenario.
With an increase in construction work and housing developments, Clean-Q has had an influx of requests for cleaning services. The demand has overwhelmed Clean-Q's traditional supply and demand system that has caused some overlapping bookings.
Ina business strategy session held by senior management recently, Clear-Q invited vendors to present potential solutions to their current operational issues. These vendors included Application developers and Cloud-Q's solution providers, presenting their proposed solutions and platforms.
The Managing Director opted to initiate the process to integrate Clean-Q's operations with a cloud solution (LeadOps) that will provide the following solution one single online platform: A web interface that Clean-Q accesses for the purposes of resource and customer management. This would entail uploading resource and customer information.
* A customer facing web interface that enables customers to register, manage and submit cleaning service requests online.
* A resource facing web interface that enables resources to apply and manage their assigned jobs.
* An online payment facility for customers to pay for services.
Considering that LeadOps will host/process personal information on behalf of Clean-Q remotely, what is an appropriate next step for Clean-Q senior management to assess LeadOps' appropriateness?

  • A. Determine if any Clean-Q competitors currently use LeadOps as a solution.
  • B. Involve the Information Security team to understand in more detail the types of services and solutions LeadOps is proposing.
  • C. Nothing at this stage as the Managing Director has made a decision.
  • D. Obtain a legal opinion from an external law firm on contracts management.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Given that LeadOps will host/process personal information on behalf of Clean-Q remotely, it is crucial to involve the Information Security team to understand in more detail the types of services and solutions LeadOps is proposing.
* Explanation:
* Security Assessment: The Information Security team should evaluate LeadOps' security measures, data protection practices, and compliance with relevant regulations. This assessment ensures that the service provider has adequate safeguards to protect personal information.
* Risk Management: Understanding the security environment helps identify potential risks associated with outsourcing data processing. This includes assessing encryption practices, data storage policies, and incident response plans.
* Vendor Due Diligence: Conducting thorough due diligence on LeadOps helps determine their capability to handle sensitive data securely. This can involve reviewing their security certifications, audits, and compliance with industry standards like ISO 27001.
* Legal and Compliance Considerations: Involving the Information Security team ensures that Clean-Q adheres to data protection regulations such as GDPR or CCPA, which require businesses to ensure their processors provide adequate data protection.
References:
* IAPP Privacy Management, Information Privacy Technologist Certification Textbooks
* ISO/IEC 27001 - Information Security Management Systems
* GDPR Articles 28 and 32


NEW QUESTION # 65
What distinguishes a "smart" device?

  • A. It augments its intelligence with information from the internet.
  • B. It can reapply access controls stored in its internal memory.
  • C. It is programmable by a user without specialized training.
  • D. It can perform multiple data functions simultaneously.

Answer: A

Explanation:
A "smart" device is characterized by its ability to leverage internet connectivity to enhance its functionality.
Here's why option D is correct:
* Internet Connectivity: Smart devices are connected to the internet, allowing them to access and utilize information from various online sources to improve performance and functionality.
* Enhanced Capabilities: This connectivity enables features such as real-time updates, remote control, data sharing, and interaction with other smart devices, distinguishing them from traditional devices.
* User Interaction: While being programmable by users without specialized training (B) is a feature of some smart devices, it is not the defining characteristic.
* Functionality: Performing multiple data functions simultaneously (A) and reapplying access controls (C) are capabilities that can be found in various devices, not exclusive to smart devices.
* Examples: Examples include smart home devices like thermostats that adjust settings based on weather forecasts accessed from the internet or smart assistants that provide answers by searching online databases.


NEW QUESTION # 66
A healthcare provider would like to data mine information for research purposes however the Chief Privacy Officer is concerned medical data of individuals may be disclosed overcome the concern, which is the preferred technique for protecting such data while still allowing for analysis?

  • A. Isolation
  • B. Encryption
  • C. Access Control
  • D. Perturbation

Answer: D

Explanation:
perturbation would be a preferred technique for protecting medical data while still allowing for analysis. Perturbation involves adding noise or randomness to data in order to preserve privacy while still allowing for statistical analysis.


NEW QUESTION # 67
SCENARIO
Please use the following to answer the next questions:
Your company is launching a new track and trace health app during the outbreak of a virus pandemic in the US. The developers claim the app is based on privacy by design because personal data collected was considered to ensure only necessary data is captured, users are presented with a privacy notice, and they are asked to give consent before data is shared. Users can update their consent after logging into an account, through a dedicated privacy and consent hub. This is accessible through the 'Settings' icon from any app page, then clicking 'My Preferences', and selecting 'Information Sharing and Consent' where the following choices are displayed:
* "I consent to receive notifications and infection alerts";
* "I consent to receive information on additional features or services, and new products";
* "I consent to sharing only my risk result and location information, for exposure and contact tracing purposes";
* "I consent to share my data for medical research purposes"; and
* "I consent to share my data with healthcare providers affiliated to the company".
For each choice, an ON* or OFF tab is available The default setting is ON for all Users purchase a virus screening service for USS29 99 for themselves or others using the app The virus screening service works as follows:
* Step 1 A photo of the user's face is taken.
* Step 2 The user measures their temperature and adds the reading in the app
* Step 3 The user is asked to read sentences so that a voice analysis can detect symptoms
* Step 4 The user is asked to answer questions on known symptoms
* Step 5 The user can input information on family members (name date of birth, citizenship, home address, phone number, email and relationship).) The results are displayed as one of the following risk status "Low. "Medium" or "High" if the user is deemed at "Medium " or "High" risk an alert may be sent to other users and the user is Invited to seek a medical consultation and diagnostic from a healthcare provider.
A user's risk status also feeds a world map for contact tracing purposes, where users are able to check if they have been or are in dose proximity of an infected person If a user has come in contact with another individual classified as "medium' or 'high' risk an instant notification also alerts the user of this. The app collects location trails of every user to monitor locations visited by an infected individual Location is collected using the phone's GPS functionary, whether the app is in use or not however, the exact location of the user is "blurred' for privacy reasons Users can only see on the map circles Which technology is best suited for the contact tracing feature of the app1?

  • A. Near Field Communication (NFC)
  • B. Deep learning
  • C. Bluetooth
  • D. Radio-Frequency Identification (RFID)

Answer: C

Explanation:
Bluetooth technology is best suited for the contact tracing feature of the app. Bluetooth allows for proximity detection, which is essential for determining if a user has been in close contact with an infected person. It can operate effectively within the range needed for contact tracing without the significant battery drain associated with GPS. This method aligns with privacy principles by providing proximity data without constantly tracking the exact location of users. References to this can be found in the IAPP's CIPT materials discussing privacy-preserving technologies and their applications in contact tracing.


NEW QUESTION # 68
SCENARIO
Please use the following to answer the next question:
Jordan just joined a fitness-tracker start-up based in California, USA, as its first Information Privacy and Security Officer. The company is quickly growing its business but does not sell any of the fitness trackers itself. Instead, it relies on a distribution network of third-party retailers in all major countries. Despite not having any stores, the company has a 78% market share in the EU. It has a website presenting the company and products, and a member section where customers can access their information. Only the email address and physical address need to be provided as part of the registration process in order to customize the site to the user's region and country. There is also a newsletter sent every month to all members featuring fitness tips, nutrition advice, product spotlights from partner companies based on user behavior and preferences.
Jordan says the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) does not apply to the company. He says the company is not established in the EU, nor does it have a processor in the region. Furthermore, it does not do any "offering goods or services" in the EU since it does not do any marketing there, nor sell to consumers directly. Jordan argues that it is the customers who chose to buy the products on their own initiative and there is no "offering" from the company.
The fitness trackers incorporate advanced features such as sleep tracking, GPS tracking, heart rate monitoring. wireless syncing, calorie-counting and step-tracking. The watch must be paired with either a smartphone or a computer in order to collect data on sleep levels, heart rates, etc. All information from the device must be sent to the company's servers in order to be processed, and then the results are sent to the smartphone or computer. Jordan argues that there is no personal information involved since the company does not collect banking or social security information.
Why is Jordan's claim that the company does not collect personal information as identified by the GDPR inaccurate?

  • A. The fitness trackers capture sleep and heart rate data to monitor an individual's behavior.
  • B. The website collects the customers' and users' region and country information.
  • C. The customers must pair their fitness trackers to either smartphones or computers.
  • D. The potential customers must browse for products online.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Sleep and heart rate data collected by the fitness trackers can be considered personal information under the GDPR because it relates to an identified or identifiable natural person. This means that even if the company does not collect other types of personal information such as name or address, it is still collecting personal information as defined by the GDPR.


NEW QUESTION # 69
SCENARIO
Looking back at your first two years as the Director of Personal Information Protection and Compliance for the Berry Country Regional Medical Center in Thorn Bay, Ontario, Canada, you see a parade of accomplishments, from developing state-of-the-art simulation based training for employees on privacy protection to establishing an interactive medical records system that is accessible by patients as well as by the medical personnel. Now, however, a question you have put off looms large: how do we manage all the data-not only records produced recently, but those still on hand from years ago? A data flow diagram generated last year shows multiple servers, databases, and work stations, many of which hold files that have not yet been incorporated into the new records system. While most of this data is encrypted, its persistence may pose security and compliance concerns. The situation is further complicated by several long-term studies being conducted by the medical staff using patient information. Having recently reviewed the major Canadian privacy regulations, you want to make certain that the medical center is observing them.
You also recall a recent visit to the Records Storage Section, often termed "The Dungeon" in the basement of the old hospital next to the modern facility, where you noticed a multitude of paper records. Some of these were in crates marked by years, medical condition or alphabetically by patient name, while others were in undifferentiated bundles on shelves and on the floor. The back shelves of the section housed data tapes and old hard drives that were often unlabeled but appeared to be years old. On your way out of the dungeon, you noticed just ahead of you a small man in a lab coat who you did not recognize. He carried a batch of folders under his arm, apparently records he had removed from storage.
Which cryptographic standard would be most appropriate for protecting patient credit card information in the records system?

  • A. Obfuscation
  • B. Symmetric Encryption
  • C. Hashing
  • D. Asymmetric Encryption

Answer: B

Explanation:
To protect patient credit card information in the records system at Berry Country Regional Medical Center, an appropriate cryptographic standard to use would be option B: Symmetric Encryption.
Symmetric encryption uses a single secret key to encrypt and decrypt data. It is a fast and efficient method of encryption that can provide strong protection for sensitive data such as credit card information when implemented correctly.


NEW QUESTION # 70
A valid argument against data minimization is that it?

  • A. Can have an adverse effect on data quality.
  • B. Increases the chance that someone can be identified from data.
  • C. Decreases the speed of data transfers.
  • D. Can limit business opportunities.

Answer: D

Explanation:
A valid argument against data minimization is that it Can limit business opportunities. Data minimization is the principle that data collected should be limited to what is necessary for the purposes for which it is processed. While this principle supports privacy and data protection, it can also restrict the amount of data available to businesses for analysis and innovation, potentially limiting their ability to develop new products, improve services, or identify new market opportunities.


NEW QUESTION # 71
What is the main reason a company relies on implied consent instead of explicit consent from a user to process her data?

  • A. To secure explicit consent, a user s website browsing would be significantly disrupted.
  • B. The implied consent model provides the user with more detailed data collection information.
  • C. Regulators prefer the implied consent model.
  • D. An explicit consent model is more expensive to implement.

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 72
How can a hacker gain control of a smartphone to perform remote audio and video surveillance?

  • A. By performing cross-site scripting.
  • B. By manipulating geographic information systems.
  • C. By accessing a phone's global positioning system satellite signal.
  • D. By installing a roving bug on the phone.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Hackers can exploit various vulnerabilities to gain unauthorized access to smartphones and perform remote surveillance. Here's how a roving bug can be used:
* Roving Bug Installation: A roving bug is a type of software that can be covertly installed on a smartphone to enable remote audio and video surveillance. This malicious software can activate the phone's microphone and camera without the user's knowledge.
* Unauthorized Access: The installation of such software can occur through various means, including phishing attacks, malicious apps, or exploiting vulnerabilities in the phone's operating system.
* Surveillance Capabilities: Once installed, the hacker can remotely control the phone to eavesdrop on
* conversations, capture video footage, and monitor the user's activities.
* Privacy Breach: This type of intrusion represents a significant privacy breach, as it allows continuous monitoring and recording of the user's private moments and conversations.


NEW QUESTION # 73
Between November 30th and December 2nd, 2013, cybercriminals successfully infected the credit card payment systems and bypassed security controls of a United States-based retailer with malware that exfiltrated
40 million credit card numbers. Six months prior, the retailer had malware detection software installed to prevent against such an attack.
Which of the following would best explain why the retailer's consumer data was still exfiltrated?

  • A. The retailer's network that transferred personal data and customer payments was separate from the rest of the corporate network, but the malware code was disguised with the name of software that is supposed to protect this information.
  • B. The U.S Department of Justice informed the retailer of the security breach on Dec. 12th, but the retailer took three days to confirm the breach and eradicate the malware.
  • C. The IT systems and security measures utilized by the retailer's third-party vendors were in compliance with industry standards, but their credentials were stolen by black hat hackers who then entered the retailer's system.
  • D. The detection software alerted the retailer's security operations center per protocol, but the information security personnel failed to act upon the alerts.

Answer: D

Explanation:
* Option A: This option explains that the detection software worked as intended and alerted the security team, but the failure occurred due to human error - the security personnel did not act on the alerts. This is a common issue where the technology functions correctly, but the human response is lacking.
* Option B: This explains a delay in action post-notification from the Department of Justice, but it doesn't fully account for how the breach was successful initially despite having detection software.
* Option C: This option shifts the blame to third-party vendors, which may not directly explain the effectiveness of the malware detection.
* Option D: This points to the malware disguising itself, which could bypass some detection, but the
* crucial factor was the human oversight in not responding to alerts.
References:
* IAPP CIPT Study Guide
* Case studies on data breaches and human error in cybersecurity responses


NEW QUESTION # 74
What is the main privacy threat posed by Radio Frequency Identification (RFID)?

  • A. An individual with an RFID receiver can track people or consumer products.
  • B. An individual can use an RFID receiver to engage in video surveillance.
  • C. An individual can tap mobile phone communications.
  • D. An individual can scramble computer transmissions in weapons systems.

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 75
In terms of data extraction, which of the following should NOT be considered by a privacy technologist in relation to data portability?

  • A. The medium of the data.
  • B. The format of the data.
  • C. The size of the data.
  • D. The range of the data.

Answer: A

Explanation:
The medium of the data. Data portability refers to an individual's right to receive their personal data in a structured and commonly used format so that they can transfer it to another service provider. The size (A), format (B), and range of the data are all relevant considerations when extracting data for portability purposes. However, the medium of the data is not relevant in this context.


NEW QUESTION # 76
You are a wine collector who uses the web to do research about your hobby. You navigate to a news site and an ad for wine pops up. What kind of advertising is this?

  • A. Behavioral.
  • B. Contextual.
  • C. Demographic.
  • D. Remnant.

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 77
......


IAPP CIPT certification exam is an essential certification for information privacy professionals who handle the technical aspects of privacy and data protection. Certified Information Privacy Technologist (CIPT) certification provides professionals with the knowledge and skills needed to implement privacy and data protection measures in their organizations, ensuring compliance with privacy laws and regulations. The CIPT certification is globally recognized and validates an individual's expertise in privacy-enhancing technologies, privacy by design, and data protection.


The Certified Information Privacy Technologist (CIPT) certification exam consists of 90 multiple-choice questions that must be completed within two and a half hours. CIPT exam is available in multiple languages and can be taken online or in-person at a testing center. To be eligible for the certification, individuals must have a minimum of two years of professional experience in the field of privacy technology, or a combination of education and experience that demonstrates their knowledge and skills in the field.

 

Certified Information Privacy Technologist (CIPT) Free Update With 100% Exam Passing Guarantee: https://www.certkingdompdf.com/CIPT-latest-certkingdom-dumps.html

Real Exam Questions and Answers - IAPP CIPT Dump is Ready: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1KzF3wAa_2E91oDg2XUbMwTJsMBozdJZ_