[Mar 19, 2026] CRISC Exam Brain Dumps - Study Notes and Theory
Pass ISACA CRISC Test Practice Test Questions Exam Dumps
ISACA CRISC (Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control) exam is an internationally recognized certification that is specifically designed for professionals who are involved in the management of IT risks and information systems. CRISC exam is designed to test the knowledge and expertise of individuals in various areas, including risk management, information security, and information systems control. Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control certification is highly sought after by employers and organizations around the world, as it demonstrates a high level of competence and expertise in these critical areas.
ISACA CRISC (Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control) Exam is a globally recognized certification exam that measures a candidate's ability to identify, assess, and mitigate risks within an organization's information systems environment. The CRISC certification is particularly important in today's digital age, where businesses rely heavily on technology to store and manage their data. Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control certification ensures that professionals can effectively manage the risks associated with information systems and provide reliable solutions to protect data.
NEW QUESTION # 901
Which of the following is the BEST way to determine whether system settings are in alignment with control
baselines?
- A. Configuration validation
- B. Control attestation
- C. Internal audit review
- D. Penetration testing
Answer: A
Explanation:
The best way to determine whether system settings are in alignment with control baselines is to perform
configuration validation. Configuration validation is the process of verifying that the system settings and
parameters are consistent with the predefined standards and requirements, and that they reflect the current and
desired state of the system. Configuration validation helps to ensure that the system is configured correctly
and securely, and that it complies with the relevant policies, regulations, and bestpractices. Configuration
validation also helps to identify and correct any deviations or errors in the system settings, and to prevent or
mitigate any potential risks or issues. The other options are not as effective as configuration validation,
although they may provide some input or information for the system alignment. Control attestation,
penetration testing, and internal audit review are all activities that can help to assess or evaluate the system
alignment, but they do not necessarily determine or validate the system settings. References = Risk and
Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.1, page 3-11.
NEW QUESTION # 902
An interruption in business productivity is considered as which of the following risks?
- A. Reporting risk
- B. Operational risk
- C. Strategic risk
- D. Legal risk
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Operation risks encompass any potential interruption in business. Operational risks are those risk that are associated with the day-to-day operations of the enterprise. They are generally more detailed as compared to strategic risks. It is the risk of loss resulting from inadequate or failed internal processes, people and systems, or from external events. Some sub-categories of operational risks include:
Organizational or management related risks
Information security risks
Production, process, and productivity risks
Profitability operational risks
Business interruption risks
Project activity risks
Contract and product liability riss
Incidents and crisis
Illegal or malicious acts
Incorrect Answers:
A: Reporting risks are those occurrences which prevent accurate and timely reporting.
C: Legal risks are dealing with those events which can deteriorate the company's legal status. Legal compliance is the process or procedure to ensure that an organization follows relevant laws, regulations and business rules. The definition of legal compliance, especially in the context of corporate legal departments, has recently been expanded to include understanding and adhering to ethical codes within entire professions, as well. Hence legal and compliance risk has the potential to deteriorate company's legal or regulatory status.
D: Strategic risks have potential which breaks in obtaining strategic objectives. Since the strategic objective will shape and impact the entire organization, the risk of not meeting that objective can impose a great threat on the organization.
NEW QUESTION # 903
Which of the following is MOST important when developing key performance indicators (KPIs)?
- A. Alignment to risk responses
- B. Alignment to management reports
- C. Identification of trends
- D. Alerts when risk thresholds are reached
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Monitor and analyze key performance indicators (KPIs) to identify changes or trends related to the control environment and determine the efficiency and effectiveness of controls.
Reference: https://m.isaca.org/Certification/Additional-Resources/Documents/CRISC-Item-Development- Guide_bro_Eng_0117.pdf
NEW QUESTION # 904
Numerous media reports indicate a recently discovered technical vulnerability is being actively exploited.
Which of the following would be the BEST response to this scenario?
- A. Conduct a vulnerability assessment.
- B. Reassess the inherent risk of the target.
- C. Assess the vulnerability management process.
- D. Conduct a control serf-assessment.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A technical vulnerability is a weakness or flaw in the design or implementation of an information system or
resource that can be exploited or compromised by a threat or source of harm that may affect the organization's
objectives or operations. A technical vulnerability may be caused byvarious factors, such as human error,
system failure, process inefficiency, resource limitation, etc.
A vulnerability assessment is a process of identifying and evaluating the technical vulnerabilities that exist or
may arise in the organization's information systems or resources, and determining their severity and impact.
A vulnerability assessment can help the organization to assess and prioritize the risks, and to design and
implement appropriate controls or countermeasures to mitigate or prevent the risks.
The best response to the scenario of a recently discovered technical vulnerability being actively exploited is to
conduct a vulnerability assessment, because it can help the organization to address the following questions:
What is the nature and extent of the technical vulnerability, and how does it affect the functionality or security
of the information system or resource?
How is the technical vulnerability being exploited or compromised, and by whom or what?
What are the potential consequences or impacts of the exploitation or compromise of the technical
vulnerability for the organization and its stakeholders?
How can the technical vulnerability be detected and reported, and what are the available or feasible options or
solutions to address or correct it?
Conducting a vulnerability assessment can help the organization to improve and optimize the information
system or resource quality and performance, and to reduce or eliminate the technical vulnerability. It can also
help the organization to align the information system or resource with the organization's objectives and
requirements, and to comply with the organization's policies and standards.
The other options are not the best responses to the scenario of a recently discovered technical vulnerability
being actively exploited, because they do not address the main purpose and benefit of conducting a
vulnerability assessment, which is to identify and evaluate the technical vulnerability, and to determine its
severity and impact.
Assessing the vulnerability management process is a process of evaluating and verifying the adequacy and
effectiveness of the process that is used to identify, analyze, evaluate, and communicate the technical
vulnerabilities, and to align them with the organization's objectives and requirements. Assessing the
vulnerability management process can help the organization to improve and optimize the process, and to
reduce or eliminate the gaps or weaknesses in the process, but it is not the best response to the scenario,
because it does not indicate the nature and extent of the technical vulnerability, and how it affects the
organization and its stakeholders.
Conducting a control self-assessment is a process of evaluating and verifying the adequacy and effectiveness
of the controls that are intended to ensure the confidentiality, integrity, availability, and reliability of the
information systems and resources, using the input and feedback from the individuals or groups that are
involved or responsible for the information systems activities or functions. Conducting a control self-
assessment can help the organization to identify and document the control deficiencies, and to align them with
the organization's objectives and requirements, but it is not the best response to the scenario, because it does
not indicate thenature and extent of the technical vulnerability, and how it affects the organization and its
stakeholders.
Reassessing the inherent risk of the target is a process of reevaluating and recalculating the amount and type
of risk that exists in the absence of any controls, and that is inherent to the nature or characteristics of the
target, which is the information system or resource that is affected by the technical vulnerability. Reassessing
the inherent risk of the target can help the organization to understand and document the risk exposure or level,
and to align it with the organization's risk appetite and tolerance, but it is not the best response to the scenario,
because it does not indicate the nature and extent of the technical vulnerability, and how it affects the
organization and its stakeholders. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-59, 62-63
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 195
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
NEW QUESTION # 905
Which of the following is the BEST key control indicator (KCI) for a vulnerability management program?
- A. Percentage of high-risk vulnerabilities addressed
- B. Percentage of high-risk vulnerabilities missed
- C. Number of high-risk vulnerabilities outstanding
- D. Defined thresholds for high-risk vulnerabilities
Answer: A
Explanation:
A key control indicator (KCI) is a metric that measures the effectiveness of a control in mitigating a risk. A
good KCI for a vulnerability management program should reflect how well the program is reducing the
exposure to high-risk vulnerabilities. The percentage of high-risk vulnerabilities addressed is a KCI that
shows the proportion of identified high-risk vulnerabilities that have been remediated or mitigated within a
defined time frame. This KCI can help monitor the progress and performance of the vulnerability
management program and identify areas for improvement.
The other options are not the best KCI for a vulnerability management program because they do not measure
the effectiveness of the control. The percentage of high-risk vulnerabilities missed is a measure of the
completeness of the vulnerability scanning process, not the control. The number of high-risk vulnerabilities
outstanding is a measure of the current risk exposure, not the control. The defined thresholds for high-risk
vulnerabilities are a measure of the risk appetite, not the control. References = Risk and Information Systems
Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3: IT Risk Assessment, Section 3.4: Risk Indicators, p. 133-134.
NEW QUESTION # 906
A risk practitioner learns that the organization s industry is experiencing a trend of rising security incidents.
Which of the following is the BEST course of action?
- A. Respond to organizational security threats.
- B. Evaluate the relevance of the evolving threats.
- C. Review past internal audit results.
- D. Research industry published studies.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 907
An organization has implemented a policy requiring staff members to take a minimum of five consecutive days' leave per year to mitigate the risk of malicious insider activities. Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) of the effectiveness of this policy?
- A. Average number of consecutive days of leave per staff member
- B. Financial loss incurred due to malicious activities since policy implementation
- C. Percentage of staff turnover following five consecutive days of leave
- D. Number of suspected malicious activities reported since policy implementation
Answer: D
Explanation:
The number of suspected malicious activities reported since the policy's implementation directly measures the policy's effectiveness in identifying and mitigating insider threats. This aligns with Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) used to evaluate control outcomes.
NEW QUESTION # 908
An unauthorized individual has socially engineered entry into an organization's secured physical premises. Which of the following is the BEST way to prevent future occurrences?
- A. Employ security guards.
- B. Conduct security awareness training.
- C. Require security access badges.
- D. Install security cameras.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 909
When creating a separate IT risk register for a large organization, which of the following is MOST important to consider with regard to the existing corporate risk 'register?
- A. Using a common risk taxonomy
- B. Leveraging business risk professionals
- C. Relying on generic IT risk scenarios
- D. Describing IT risk in business terms
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 910
A highly regulated organization acquired a medical technology startup company that processes sensitive
personal information with weak data protection controls. Which of the following is the BEST way for the
acquiring company to reduce its risk while still enabling the flexibility needed by the startup company?
- A. Classify and protect the data according to the parent company's internal standards.
- B. Have the data privacy officer review the startup company's data protection policies.
- C. Identify previous data breaches using the startup company's audit reports.
- D. Implement a firewall and isolate the environment from the parent company's network.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Data protection is the process of safeguarding sensitive personal information from unauthorized access, use,
disclosure, modification, or destruction. Data protection can help to ensure the privacy and security ofthe data
subjects, and to comply with the legal and regulatory requirements that apply to the data processing activities1.
A highly regulated organization that acquired a medical technology startup company that processes sensitive
personal information with weak data protection controls faces a high risk of data breaches, fines, lawsuits,
reputational damage, or loss of customer trust. The best way for the acquiring company to reduce its risk
while still enabling the flexibility needed by the startupcompany is to classify and protect the data according
to the parent company's internal standards, because it can help to:
Identify and categorize the sensitive personal information based on its value, sensitivity, and criticality, such
as confidential, restricted, internal, or public
Apply and enforce the appropriate data protection policies, procedures, and controls for each data category,
such as encryption, access control, backup, retention, or disposal
Align and integrate the data protection practices and processes of the startup company with those of the parent
company, and ensure the consistency and compliance across the organization
Balance and optimize the trade-off between data protection and data usability, and allow the startup company
to leverage the data for innovation and growth, as long as it meets the data protection standards of the parent
company23
The other options are not the best ways for the acquiring company to reduce its risk while still enabling the
flexibility needed by the startup company, but rather some of the steps or aspects of data protection. Identify
previous data breaches using the startup company's audit reports is a step that can help to assess the current
data protection status and gaps of the startup company, and to learn from the past incidents and mistakes, but
it does not address the future data protection needs and challenges of the startup company. Have the data
privacy officer review the startup company's data protection policies is an aspect that can help to ensure the
legal and regulatory compliance of the data protection activities of the startup company, and to provide
guidance and oversight for the data protection issues and risks, but it does not ensure the technical and
operational effectiveness and efficiency of the data protection controls of the startup company. Implement a
firewall and isolate the environment from the parent company's network is a control that can help to prevent
or limit the external or internal attacks or threats to the data of the startup company, and to reduce the
exposure or impact of a data breach, but it does not ensure the availability or accessibility of the data for the
legitimate and authorized purposes of the startup company. References =
Data Protection - ISACA
Data Classification - ISACA
Data Protection Best Practices - ISACA
[CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition]
NEW QUESTION # 911
Which of the following would be of MOST concern to a risk practitioner reviewing risk action plans for documented IT risk scenarios?
- A. Many action plans were discontinued after senior management accepted the risk.
- B. Target dates for completion are missing from some action plans.
- C. Individuals outside IT are managing action plans for the risk scenarios.
- D. Senior management approved multiple changes to several action plans.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 912
Which of the following do NOT indirect information?
- A. Reports that show orders that were rejected for credit limitations.
- B. Reports that provide information about any unusual deviations and individual product margins.
- C. Information about the propriety of cutoff
- D. The lack of any significant differences between perpetual levels and actual levels of goods.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Information about the propriety of cutoff is a kind of direct information.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Reports that show orders that were rejected for credit limitations provide indirect information that credit checking aspects of the system are working as intended.
C: Reports that provide information about any unusual deviations and individual product margins (whereby, the price of an item sold is compared to its standard cost) provide indirect information that controls over billing and pricing are operating.
D: The lack of any significant differences between perpetual levels and actual levels provides indirect information that its billing controls are operating.
NEW QUESTION # 913
What are the functions of audit and accountability control?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
- A. Implement an effective audit program
- B. Explanation:
Audit and accountability family of controls helps an organization implement an effective audit program. It provides details on how to determine what to audit. It provides details on how to protect the audit logs. It also includes information on using audit logs for non-repudiation. - C. Provides details on how to determine what to audit
- D. Provides details on how to protect the audit logs
- E. Implement effective access control
Answer: A,B,C,D
Explanation:
is incorrect. Access Control is the family of controls that helps an organizationimplement effective access control. They ensure that users have the rights and permissions they need to perform their jobs, and no more. It includes principles such as least privilege and separation of duties. Audit and accountability family of controls do not help in implementing effective access control.
NEW QUESTION # 914
Several newly identified risk scenarios are being integrated into an organization's risk register. The MOST appropriate risk owner would be the individual who:
- A. can implement remediation action plans.
- B. is in charge of information security.
- C. is accountable for loss if the risk materializes.
- D. is responsible for enterprise risk management (ERM)
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 915
Which of the following BEST mitigates the risk of violating privacy laws when transferring personal
information lo a supplier?
- A. Utilize blockchain during the data transfer
- B. Contractually obligate the supplier to follow privacy laws.
- C. Encrypt the data while in transit lo the supplier
- D. Require independent audits of the supplier's control environment
Answer: B
Explanation:
Contractually obligating the supplier to follow privacy laws is the best way to mitigate the risk of violating
privacy laws when transferring personal information to a supplier, because it ensures that the supplier is
legally bound to comply with the applicable laws and regulations that protect the privacy and security of the
personal information. This also creates a clear accountability andliability for the supplier in case of a privacy
breach, and defines the rights and obligations of both parties in relation to the personal information. The other
options are not the best ways to mitigate the risk of violating privacy laws, although they may also be helpful
in reducing the likelihood or impact of a privacy breach. Encrypting the data while in transit to the supplier,
requiring independent audits of the supplier's control environment, and utilizing blockchain during the data
transfer are examples of technical or assurance controls that aim to protect the confidentiality, integrity, and
availability of the personal information, but they do not address the legal or contractual aspects of the privacy
laws. References = CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions
NEW QUESTION # 916
Risk management strategies are PRIMARILY adopted to:
- A. take necessary precautions for claims and losses
- B. achieve acceptable residual risk levels
- C. achieve compliance with legal requirements
- D. avoid risk for business and IT assets
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
NEW QUESTION # 917
A bank has outsourced its statement printing function to an external service provider. Which of the following
is the MOST critical requirement to include in the contract?
- A. Provision of internal audit reports
- B. Confidentiality of customer data
- C. Notification of sub-contracting arrangements
- D. Monitoring of service costs
Answer: B
Explanation:
The MOST critical requirement to include in the contract is the confidentiality of customer data, because it is
a legal and ethical obligation of the bank to protect the privacy and security of its customers' personal and
financial information. Outsourcing the statement printing function to an external service provider exposes the
customer data to potential unauthorized access, disclosure, or misuse by the service provider or its sub-
contractors. Therefore, the contract should specify the terms and conditions for the handling, storage, and
disposal of the customer data, as well as the penalties for any breach of confidentiality. The other options are
not as critical as the confidentiality of customer data, because:
Option A: Monitoring of service costs is an important requirement to ensure that the service provider delivers
the statement printing function within the agreed budget and scope, but it is not as critical as the
confidentiality of customer data, which has legal and reputational implications for the bank.
Option B: Provision of internal audit reports is a useful requirement to verify that the service provider
complies with the internal and external standards and regulations for the statement printing function, but it is
not as critical as the confidentiality of customer data, which is a core value of the bank and its customers.
Option C: Notification of sub-contracting arrangements is a relevant requirement to ensure that the service
provider does not delegate the statement printing function to another party without the bank's consent and
oversight, but it is not as critical as the confidentiality of customer data, which is the primary responsibility of
the bank and its service provider. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th
Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 197.
NEW QUESTION # 918
Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of providing an aggregated view of IT risk to business management?
- A. To provide consistent and clear terminology
- B. To allow for proper review of risk tolerance
- C. To identify dependencies for reporting risk
- D. To enable consistent data on risk to be obtained
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
NEW QUESTION # 919
Which of the following is the MOST important key performance indicator (KPI) to establish in the service
level agreement (SLA) for an outsourced data center?
- A. Percentage of systems included in recovery processes
- B. Number of key systems hosted
- C. Percentage of system availability
- D. Average response time to resolve system incidents
Answer: C
Explanation:
The percentage of system availability is the most important key performance indicator (KPI) to establish in
the service level agreement (SLA) for an outsourced data center. This KPI measures the uptime or reliability
of the systems hosted by the data center provider, and reflects the ability of the provider to meet the customer'
s expectations and requirements for system performance and accessibility. A high percentage of system
availability indicates that the provider is delivering consistent and quality service, while a low percentage of
system availability indicates that the provider is experiencing frequent or prolonged system failures or
disruptions, which can negatively affect the customer's business operations and reputation. Therefore, the
percentage of system availability is a critical factor for evaluating the effectiveness and efficiency of the data
center provider, and should be clearly defined and monitored in the SLA. The other options are not the most
important KPIs to establish in the SLA for an outsourced data center, as they do not directly measure the
quality or reliability of the service provided. The percentage of systems included in recovery processes is a
measure of the scope or coverage of the disaster recovery plan (DRP) of the data center provider, but it does
not indicate how well the provider can execute the DRP or restore the systems in the event of a disaster. The
number of key systems hosted is a measure of the capacity or utilization of the data center provider, but it
does not indicate how efficiently or securely the provider can manage the systems. The average response time
to resolve system incidents is a measure of the responsiveness or agility of the data center provider, but it does
not indicate how effectively or proactively the provider can prevent or mitigate system
incidents. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section
3.2.3.4, Page 140.
NEW QUESTION # 920
Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of identifying appropriate risk owners?
- A. Responsibility is established for risk treatment decisions.
- B. Stakeholders are consulted about risk treatment options
- C. Risk owners are informed of risk treatment options
- D. Accountability is established for risk treatment decisions
Answer: D
Explanation:
The greatest benefit of identifying appropriate risk owners is that accountability is established for risk treatment decisions. Risk owners are the individuals or groups who are responsible and accountable for managing a specific risk and its associated actions and outcomes. By identifying appropriate risk owners, the organization can ensure that the risk treatment decisions are made by the people who have the authority, knowledge, and interest in the risk. Stakeholders being consulted, risk owners being informed, and responsibility being established are other possible benefits, but they are not as great as accountability being established. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 8; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 97.
NEW QUESTION # 921
Performing a background check on a new employee candidate before hiring is an example of what type of control?
- A. Compensating
- B. Corrective
- C. Detective
- D. Preventive
Answer: D
Explanation:
A control is an action or measure that reduces the likelihood or impact of a risk to an acceptable level.
Controls can be classified into different types based on their purpose or function, such as detective, compensating, corrective, or preventive. Performing a background check on a new employee candidate before hiring is an example of a preventive control. A preventive control is a control that aims to prevent the occurrence or manifestation of a risk, such as by avoiding, removing, or reducing the risk sources, causes, or drivers. A background check is a process that verifies the identity, qualifications, and history of a potential employee, and helps to ensure that the employee is suitable and trustworthy for the job. A background check can prevent the risk of hiring an unqualified, fraudulent, or malicious employee, who could compromise the performance, security, or compliance of the enterprise. The other options are not examples of preventive controls, as they involve different types of controls:
* A detective control is a control that aims to detect the occurrence or manifestation of a risk, such as by monitoring, measuring, or reporting the risk events, indicators, or outcomes. An example of a detective control is a log review, which is a process that analyzes the records of the activities or transactions on the IT systems or applications, and helps to identify any anomalies, errors, or violations that could indicate a risk.
* A compensating control is a control that aims to compensate for the weakness or deficiency of another control, such as by providing an alternative or additional level of protection or assurance. An example of a compensating control is a firewall, which is a device or software that filters the network traffic and blocks the unauthorized or malicious access to the IT systems or applications, and helps to compensate for the lack or failure of other security controls, such as encryption, authentication, or authorization.
* A corrective control is a control that aims to correct the occurrence or manifestation of a risk, such as by restoring, repairing, or improving the affected assets, processes, or functions. An example of a corrective control is a backup, which is a copy or replica of the data or information on the IT systems or applications, and helps to correct the loss or damage of the data or information due to a risk, such as a hardware failure, a software error, or a cyberattack. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.3.3.1, pp. 62-63.
NEW QUESTION # 922
The only output of qualitative risk analysis is risk register updates. When the project manager updates the risk register he will need to include several pieces of information including all of the following except for which one?
- A. Watchlist of low-priority risks
- B. Risks grouped by categories
- C. Trends in qualitative risk analysis
- D. Risk probability-impact matrix
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Volume A
Explanation:
The risk matrix is not included as part of the risk register updates. There are seven things that can be updated in the risk register as a result of qualitative risk analysis: relating ranking of project risks, risks grouped by categories, causes of risks, list of near-term risks, risks requiring additional analysis, watchlist of low-priority risks, trends in qualitative risk analysis.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Trends in qualitative risk analysis are part of the risk register updates.
C: Risks grouped by categories are part of the risk register updates.
D: Watchlist of low-priority risks is part of the risk register updates.
NEW QUESTION # 923
......
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