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ISC CISSP (Certified Information Systems Security Professional) Certification Exam is a globally recognized certification program designed for professionals seeking to specialize in information security. Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) certification exam is administered by the International Information System Security Certification Consortium (ISC)², a non-profit organization dedicated to advancing the cybersecurity industry through education and certification.
The CISSP exam consists of 250 multiple-choice questions, and the exam duration is six hours. CISSP exam tests the candidate's knowledge in eight domains of information security, which include security and risk management, asset security, security architecture and engineering, communication and network security, identity and access management, security assessment and testing, security operations, and software development security.
NEW QUESTION # 342
How fast is private key cryptography compared to public key cryptography?
- A. 10 to 100 times faster.
- B. 100 to 1000 times faster.
- C. 10000 to 20000 times faster.
- D. 1000 to 10000 times faster.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Since Private Key encryption (Symmetric) only has one key for encrypt-decrypt, you need to use an alternative way to pass the shared secret in a secure manner, in our days, it's usually done by telephone or some secure methods that not involve the channel you are trying to secure. Also, since you need one different key to encrypt-decrypt every connection, the number of keys gets huge in a little time, for example, if we have 10 users trying to communicate between themselves, we have 100 different encryption keys to manage. There is an advantage for Private key encryption, the encryption is very fast, about 1000 / 10000 times faster than asymmetric encryption.
NEW QUESTION # 343
In which state must a computer system operate to process input/output instructions?
- A. Interprocess communication
- B. User mode
- C. Stateful inspection
- D. Supervisor mode
Answer: D
Explanation:
A computer is in a supervisory state when it is executing these privileged instructions. (privileged instructions are executed by the system administrator or by an individual who is authorized to use those instructions.) . -Ronald Krutz The CISSP PREP Guide (gold edition) pg 254-255
NEW QUESTION # 344
Which property ensures that only the intended recipient can access the data and nobody else?
- A. Capability
- B. Availability
- C. Integrity
- D. Confidentiality
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Confidentiality is the assurance that information is not disclosed to unauthorized individuals, programs, or processes. Some information is more sensitive than other information and requires a higher level of confidentiality.
Confidentiality ensures that the necessary level of secrecy is enforced at each junction of data processing and prevents unauthorized disclosure. This level of confidentiality should prevail while data resides on systems and devices within the network, as it is transmitted, and once it reaches its destination.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Capability is not what ensures that only the intended recipient can access the data and nobody else.
C: Integrity ensures that data is unaltered. This is not what is described in the question.
D: Availability ensures reliability and timely access to data and resources to authorized individuals. This is not what is described in the question.
References:
Harris, Shon, All In One CISSP Exam Guide, 6th Edition, McGraw-Hill, New York, 2013, pp. 23, 159
NEW QUESTION # 345
Which concept might require users to use a second access token or to re-enter passwords to gain elevated access rights in the identity and access provisioning life cycle?
- A. Enrollment
- B. Time-based
- C. Least privilege
- D. Access review
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 346
The three PRIMARY requirements for a penetration test are
- A. A general objective, unlimited time, and approval of the network administrator
- B. An objective statement, disclosed methodology, and fixed cost
- C. A defined goal, limited time period, and approval of management
- D. A stated objective, liability waiver, and disclosed methodology
Answer: C
Explanation:
When conducting a penetration test, the primary requirements focus on setting clear boundaries, ensuring there is a defined scope and approval from relevant stakeholders. These requirements help ensure the test is carried out effectively, legally, and safely.
Here's why Option A is correct:
Defined Goal: A penetration test must have a clear, specific objective. This could be testing for vulnerabilities in a particular system, application, or network, or testing the resilience of the organization's security posture.
Limited Time Period: Penetration tests should be conducted within a specific timeframe to ensure they are focused and controlled. Having an end date avoids testing that goes beyond scope or disrupts operations.
Approval of Management: The penetration test must be authorized by the appropriate individuals (usually senior management or the system owner). This ensures the test is legitimate and doesn't cause legal or operational issues for the organization.
NEW QUESTION # 347
What is the MOST effective countermeasure to a malicious code attack against a mobile system?
- A. Sandbox
- B. Change control
- C. Public-Key Infrastructure (PKI)
- D. Memory management
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 348
A patch for a third-party software product has been released. Which of the following should the FRST step be to support the organization's security goals?
- A. Test the delivered software patch against an instance of the application software running in production.
- B. Notify Helpdesk and key user groups.
- C. Have a back-out plan defined.
- D. Read all related information related to the patch and how the system behavior may change.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 349
Which access control model would a lattice-based access control model be an example of?
- A. Discretionary access control.
- B. Mandatory access control.
- C. Rule-based access control.
- D. Non-discretionary access control.
Answer: B
Explanation:
In a lattice model, there are pairs of elements that have the least upper bound of
values and greatest lower bound of values. In a Mandatory Access Control (MAC) model, users
and data owners do not have as much freedom to determine who can access files.
FIRST: The Lattice
A lattice is simply an access control tool usually used to implement Mandatory Access Control
(MAC) and it could also be used to implement RBAC but this is not as common. The lattice model
can be used for Integrity level or file permissions as well. The lattice has a least upper bound and
greatest lower bound. It makes use of pair of elements such as the subject security clearance
pairing with the object sensitivity label.
SECOND: DAC (Discretionary Access Control)
Let's get into Discretionary Access Control: It is an access control method where the owner (read
the creator of the object) will decide who has access at his own discretion. As we all know, users
are sometimes insane. They will share their files with other users based on their identity but
nothing prevent the user from further sharing it with other users on the network. Very quickly you
loose control on the flow of information and who has access to what. It is used in small and
friendly environment where a low level of security is all that is required.
THIRD: MAC (Mandatory Access Control)
All of the following are forms of Mandatory Access Control:
Mandatory Access control (MAC) (Implemented using the lattice)
You must remember that MAC makes use of Security Clearance for the subject and also Labels
will be assigned to the objects. The clearance of the Subject must dominate (be equal or higher)
the clearance of the Object being accessed. The label attached to the object will indicate the
sensitivity leval and the categories the object belongs to. The categories are used to implement
the Need to Know.
All of the following are forms of Non Discretionary Access Control:
Role Based Access Control (RBAC)
Rule Based Access Control (Think Firewall in this case)
The official ISC2 book says that RBAC (synonymous with Non Discretionary Access Control) is a
form of DAC but they are simply wrong. RBAC is a form of Non Discretionary Access Control. Non
Discretionary DOES NOT equal mandatory access control as there is no labels and clearance
involved.
I hope this clarifies the whole drama related to what is what in the world of access control.
In the same line of taught, you should be familiar with the difference between Explicit permission
(the user has his own profile) versus Implicit (the user inherit permissions by being a member of a
role for example).
The following answers are incorrect:
Discretionary access control. Is incorrect because in a Discretionary Access Control (DAC) model,
access is restricted based on the authorization granted to the users. It is identity based access
control only. It does not make use of a lattice.
Non-discretionary access control. Is incorrect because Non-discretionary Access Control (NDAC)
uses the role-based access control method to determine access rights and permissions. It is often
times used as a synonym to RBAC which is Role Based Access Control. The user inherit
permission from the role when they are assigned into the role. This type of access could make use
of a lattice but could also be implemented without the use of a lattice in some case. Mandatory
Access Control was a better choice than this one, but RBAC could also make use of a lattice. The
BEST answer was MAC.
Rule-based access control. Is incorrect because it is an example of a Non-discretionary Access
Control (NDAC) access control mode. You have rules that are globally applied to all users. There
is no such thing as a lattice being use in Rule-Based Access Control.
References:
AIOv3 Access Control (pages 161 - 168)
AIOv3 Security Models and Architecture (pages 291 - 293)
NEW QUESTION # 350
The top speed of ISDN BRI is 256 KBS.(True/False)
- A. False
- B. True
Answer: A
Explanation:
The top speed of ISDN BRI is 128 KBS. Its two primary channels are each capable
of carrying 64 KBS so the combined top speed is 128 KBS.
NEW QUESTION # 351
Asynchronous Communication transfers data by sending:
- A. bits of data in sync with a heartbeat or clock
- B. bits of data sequentially
- C. bits of data sequentially in irregular timing patterns
- D. bits of data simultaneously
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Asynchronous communication is the transmission sequencing technology that uses start and stop bits or similar encoding mechanism. Used in environments that transmits a variable amount of data in a periodic fashion.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Both asynchronous and synchronous communication sends bits of data sequentially.
C: Data bits transferred in sync with a heartbeat or clock is called synchronous communication.
D: Asynchronous Communication transfers one bit at a time, not multiple bits of data simultaneously.
References:
Harris, Shon, All In One CISSP Exam Guide, 6th Edition, McGraw-Hill, New York, 2013, p. 566
NEW QUESTION # 352
Management has decided that a core application will be used on personal cellular phones. As an implementation requirement, regularly scheduled analysis of the security posture needs to be conducted. Management has also directed that continuous monitoring be implemented. Which of the following is required to accomplish management's directive?
- A. Enterprise-level security information and event management (SIEM) dashboard that provides full visibility of cellular phone activity
- B. Routine reports generated by the user's cellular phone provider that detail security events
- C. Strict integration of application management, configuration management (CM), and phone management
- D. Management application installed on user phones that tracks all application events and cellular traffic
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 353
Which choice below is the MOST accurate description of a warm site?
- A. A backup processing facility with all hardware and software installed and 100% compatible with the original site, operational within hours
- B. A backup processing facility with adequate electrical wiring and air conditioning, but no hardware or software installed
- C. A mobile trailer with portable generators and air conditioning
- D. A backup processing facility with most hardware and software installed, which can be operational within a matter of days
Answer: D
Explanation:
The three most common types of remote off-site backup processing
facilities are hot sites, warm sites, and cold sites. They are primarily differentiated by how much preparation is devoted to the site, and therefore how quickly the site can be used as an alternate processing site.
NEW QUESTION # 354
Digital certificates used in Transport Layer Security (TLS) support which of the following?
- A. Information input validation
- B. Non-repudiation controls and data encryption
- C. Server identity and data confidentially
- D. Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 355
Which layer of the TCP/IP protocol model defines the IP datagram and handles the routing of data across networks?
- A. Application layer
- B. Host-to-host transport layer
- C. Internet layer
- D. Network access layer
Answer: C
Explanation:
In the TCP/IP protocol model, the Internet layer defines the IP datagram and handles the routing of data across networks. Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 3: Telecommunications and Network Security (page 84). And: HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, McGraw-Hill/Osborne, 2002, chapter 7: Telecommunications and Network Security (page 344).
NEW QUESTION # 356
Which action is MOST effective for controlling risk and minimizing maintenance costs in the software supply chain?
- A. Selecting redundant suppliers
- B. Selecting fewer, more reliable suppliers
- C. Selecting software suppliers with the fewest known vulnerabilities
- D. Selecting suppliers based on business requirements
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Mixed questions
NEW QUESTION # 357
Which layer of the TCP/IP protocol model defines the IP datagram and handles the routing of data across networks?
- A. Application layer
- B. Host-to-host transport layer
- C. Internet layer
- D. Network access layer
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
The Internet layer of the TCP/IP protocol handles the IP packets, the IP datagrams, and routes them through the network.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The application layer includes protocols that support the applications. The application layer includes protocols such as SMTP, HTTP, and FTP, but not the IP protocol.
B: The Host-to-host transport layer includes the TCP protocol, but not the IP protocol. The transport layer provides end-to-end data transport services and establishes the logical connection between two communicating computers.
D: The Network Access Layer defines how to use the network to transmit an IP datagram, but it does not define or route the IP datagrams.
The Network Access Layer is the lowest layer of the TCP/IP protocol hierarchy. The protocols in this layer provide the means for the system to deliver data to the other devices on a directly attached network.
References:
Harris, Shon, All In One CISSP Exam Guide, 6th Edition, McGraw-Hill, New York, 2013, p. 518
NEW QUESTION # 358
An external attacker has compromised an organization's network security perimeter and installed a sniffer onto an inside computer. Which of the following is the MOST effective layer of security the organization could have implemented to mitigate the attacker's ability to gain further information?
- A. Implement logical network segmentation at the switches
- B. Implement packet filtering on the network firewalls
- C. Require strong authentication for administrators
- D. Install Host Based Intrusion Detection Systems (HIDS)
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Communication and Network Security
NEW QUESTION # 359
Which of the following cloud deployment model is provisioned for open use by the general public?
- A. Community Cloud
- B. Public Cloud
- C. Private Cloud
- D. Hybrid Cloud
Answer: B
Explanation:
In Public cloud, the cloud infrastructure is provisioned for open use by the general
public. It may be owned, managed, and operated by a business, academic, or government
organization, or some combination of them. It exists on the premises of the cloud provider.
For your exam you should know below information about Cloud Computing deployment models:
Private cloud
The cloud infrastructure is provisioned for exclusive use by a single organization comprising
multiple consumers (e.g., business units). It may be owned,managed, and operated by the
organization, a third party, or some combination of them,and it may exist on or off premises.
Private Cloud
Image Reference - http://www.inflectionpoint.co.uk/Portals/5/VMware-vCloud.jpg
Community Cloud
The cloud infrastructure is provisioned for exclusive use by a specific community of consumers
from organizations that have shared concerns (e.g., mission,security requirements, policy, and
compliance considerations). It may be owned, managed, and operated by one or more of the
organizations in the community, a third party, or some combination of them, and it may exist on or
off premises.
Community Cloud
Image Reference - http://cloudcomputingksu.files.wordpress.com/2012/05/community-cloud.png
Public Cloud
The cloud infrastructure is provisioned for open use by the general public. It may be owned,
managed, and operated by a business, academic, or government organization, or some
combination of them. It exists on the premises of the cloud provider.
Public Cloud
Image reference - http://definethecloud.files.wordpress.com/2010/04/image3.png
Hybrid cloud
The cloud infrastructure is a composition of two or more distinct cloud infrastructures (private,
community, or public) that remain unique entities, but are bound together by standardized or
proprietary technology that enables data and application portability (e.g., cloud bursting for load
balancing between clouds)
hybrid cloud
Image reference - http://www.virtualizationpractice.com/wp-content/uploads/2013/04/Hybrid-Cloud-Computing-Solution1.jpg
The following answers are incorrect:
Private cloud - The cloud infrastructure is provisioned for exclusive use by a single organization comprising multiple consumers (e.g., business units). It may be owned,managed, and operated by the organization, a third party, or some combination of them,and it may exist on or off premises.
Community cloud - The cloud infrastructure is provisioned for exclusive use by a specific community of consumers from organizations that have shared concerns (e.g., mission,security requirements, policy, and compliance considerations). It may be owned, managed, and operated by one or more of the organizations in the community, a third party, or some combination of them, and it may exist on or off premises.
Hybrid cloud - The cloud infrastructure is a composition of two or more distinct cloud infrastructures (private, community, or public) that remain unique entities, but are bound together by standardized or proprietary technology that enables data and application portability (e.g., cloud bursting for load balancing between clouds)
The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question: CISA review manual 2014 page number 102 Official ISC2 guide to CISSP 3rd edition Page number 689 and 690
NEW QUESTION # 360
Which of the following encryption types is used in Hash Message Authentication Code (HMAC) for key distribution?
- A. Ephemeral
- B. Symmetric
- C. Asymmetric
- D. Permanent
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Mixed questions
Explanation/Reference: https://www.brainscape.com/flashcards/cryptography-message-integrity-6886698/packs/10957693
NEW QUESTION # 361
What is maintained by using write blocking devices whan forensic evidence is examined?
- A. Confidentiality
- B. lntegrity
- C. Availability
- D. Inventory
Answer: B
Explanation:
Write blocking devices are used to prevent any modification of the forensic evidence when it is examined.
This preserves the integrity of the evidence and ensures its admissibility in court. Write blocking devices do not affect the inventory, confidentiality, or availability of the evidence. References: 1, p. 1030; [4], p. 17
NEW QUESTION # 362
Computer forensics requires which of the following MAIN steps?
- A. Acquire the data without altering, authenticate the recovered data, analyze the data
- B. Announce the incident to responsible sections, analyze the data, assimilate the data for correlation
- C. Access the data before destruction, assimilate the data for correlation, take action to contain the damage
- D. Take action to contain the damage, announce the incident to responsible sections, analyze the data
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 363
An Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is based on the general hypothesis that a security violation is associated with a pattern of system usage which can be
- A. used to detect known violations.
- B. differentiated to detect all security violations.
- C. used to detect a masquerader.
- D. differentiated from a normal usage pattern.
Answer: D
Explanation:
An Intrusion Detection System (IDS) operates on the premise that a security violation or intrusion can often be identified based on deviations from normal patterns of system usage. By establishing what is considered "normal" behavior for users and systems, an IDS can detect when abnormal or suspicious activities occur that could indicate a security violation or intrusion.
IDS systems generally rely on two primary approaches:
1. Signature-based detection: This approach looks for known patterns of attacks (like specific exploits or malware signatures).
2. Anomaly-based detection: This approach identifies deviations from normal system behavior, flagging anything that falls outside the established baseline of regular activity. This type of detection is based on the assumption that intrusions or violations often result in behavior that is different from the typical usage patterns of a system.
NEW QUESTION # 364
What does the prudent man rule require?
- A. Senior officials to post performance bonds for their actions
- B. Senior officials to guarantee that all precautions have been taken and that no breaches of security can occur
- C. Senior officials to follow specified government standards
- D. Senior officials to perform their duties with the care that ordinary, prudent people would exercise under similar circumstances
Answer: D
Explanation:
*Answer "Senior officials to post performance bonds for their actions" is a distracter and is not part of the prudent man rule.
* Answer "Senior officials to guarantee that all precautions have been taken and that no breaches of security can occur" is incorrect because it is not possible to guarantee that breaches of security can never occur.
* Answer "Senior officials to follow specified government standards" is incorrect because the prudent man rule does not refer to a specific government standard but relates to what other prudent persons
would do.
NEW QUESTION # 365
......
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