The Ultimate Cisco 100-160 Dumps PDF Review [Q182-Q197]

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The Ultimate Cisco 100-160 Dumps PDF Review

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Cisco 100-160 Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • Endpoint Security Concepts:This section of the exam measures the skills of an Endpoint Security Specialist and includes securing individual devices, understanding protections such as antivirus, patching, and access control at the endpoint level, essential for maintaining device integrity.
Topic 2
  • Incident Handling: This section of the exam measures the skills of an Incident Responder and centers on recognizing security incidents, responding appropriately, and containing threats—forming the essential foundation of incident response procedures.
Topic 3
  • Basic Network Security Concepts: This section of the exam measures the skills of a Network Defender and focuses on understanding network-level protections, including firewalls, VPNs, and intrusion detection
  • prevention systems, providing insight into how threats are mitigated within network environments.
Topic 4
  • Vulnerability Assessment and Risk Management: This section of the exam measures the skills of a Risk Management Analyst and entails identifying and assessing vulnerabilities, understanding risk priorities, and applying mitigation strategies that help manage threats proactively within an organization's systems
Topic 5
  • Essential Security Principles: This section of the exam measures the skills of a Cybersecurity Technician and covers foundational cybersecurity concepts such as the CIA triad (confidentiality, integrity, availability), along with basic threat types and vulnerabilities, laying the conceptual groundwork for understanding how to protect information systems.

 

NEW QUESTION # 182
Which of the following is a hardware or software-based network security device that monitors incoming and outgoing network traffic and decides whether to allow or block specific traffic based on predefined security rules?

  • A. VPN
  • B. ACL
  • C. NAC
  • D. Firewall

Answer: D

Explanation:
A firewall is a hardware or software-based network security device that acts as a barrier between internal and external networks. It monitors network traffic and applies predefined rules to determine whether to allow or block specific traffic. Firewalls are commonly used to protect network infrastructure and prevent unauthorized access by filtering out potentially harmful or suspicious traffic.


NEW QUESTION # 183
Which technology focuses on creating rules and correlation logic to identify security incidents based on collected network data?

  • A. Firewall
  • B. SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response)
  • C. IDS (Intrusion Detection System)
  • D. SIEM (Security Information and Event Management)

Answer: D

Explanation:
SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) technology plays a critical role in monitoring network data to identify security incidents. SIEM solutions typically have rule-based engines and correlation logic that analyze the collected data and generate alerts or reports when specific security events or patterns are detected. By using predefined rules and correlation logic, SIEM can help identify potential security incidents and provide insights into the overall security posture of an organization's network.


NEW QUESTION # 184
Which of the following is a common proactive measure for managing vulnerabilities?

  • A. Conducting vulnerability assessments
  • B. Performing regular system backups
  • C. Implementing data encryption
  • D. Regularly updating antivirus signatures

Answer: A

Explanation:
Conducting vulnerability assessments is a proactive measure for managing vulnerabilities. It involves regularly scanning the system or network for vulnerabilities, identifying weaknesses, and prioritizing remediation efforts. By proactively assessing and identifying vulnerabilities, organizations can take necessary actions to mitigate risks and prevent potential exploitation.


NEW QUESTION # 185
Which of the following ensures that a computer system has the latest security fixes and improvements?

  • A. Device drivers
  • B. Windows Update
  • C. Firmware updates
  • D. Application updates

Answer: B

Explanation:
Windows Update is a Microsoft service that provides updates for the Windows operating system. It includes security patches and bug fixes to ensure the system has the latest security updates and enhancements. It is essential to regularly run Windows Update to protect against security vulnerabilities.


NEW QUESTION # 186
Which of the following is an example of a passive vulnerability identification technique?

  • A. Penetration testing
  • B. Vulnerability scanning
  • C. Intrusion detection system (IDS)
  • D. Incident response

Answer: B

Explanation:
Vulnerability scanning is a passive technique used to identify vulnerabilities in a system or network. It involves the use of automated tools that scan the system for known vulnerabilities without actively exploiting them.


NEW QUESTION # 187
What is a common security threat in which an attacker attempts to overwhelm a targeted system by flooding it with Internet traffic?

  • A. Phishing
  • B. Ransomware
  • C. SQL injection
  • D. Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack

Answer: D

Explanation:
Option 1: Ransomware is a type of malicious software that encrypts a victim's files and demands a ransom in exchange for the decryption key. While it can cause damage to systems, it is not specifically designed to overwhelm a system with Internet traffic.
Option 2: Correct. A Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack is a common security threat in which an attacker attempts to overwhelm a targeted system by flooding it with Internet traffic. This can result in a loss of service availability for legitimate users.
Option 3: Phishing is a type of social engineering attack in which an attacker masquerades as a trustworthy entity to trick individuals into providing sensitive information. It does not involve overwhelming a system with Internet traffic.
Option 4: SQL injection is a type of web application attack in which an attacker manipulates a SQL query to gain unauthorized access to a database. It does not involve overwhelming a system with Internet traffic.


NEW QUESTION # 188
Which of the following best defines the term "phishing" in the context of cybersecurity?

  • A. An unauthorized individual gaining access to a network by exploiting vulnerabilities
  • B. Using malware to gain control over a remote computer system
  • C. Sending unsolicited emails to a large number of recipients for advertising purposes
  • D. Impersonating a trusted entity to deceive individuals into revealing sensitive information

Answer: D

Explanation:
Phishing is a form of cyber attack where attackers masquerade as a trustworthy entity, such as a bank or a reputable company, in order to deceive individuals into providing sensitive information like usernames, passwords, or credit card details. These attacks are typically carried out through malicious emails, websites, or instant messages.


NEW QUESTION # 189
Which notation is used by IPv6?

  • A. Hexadecimal notation
  • B. Decimal notation
  • C. Octal notation
  • D. Binary notation

Answer: A

Explanation:
IPv6 addresses are expressed using hexadecimal notation. It consists of eight groups of four hexadecimal digits separated by colons, e.g., 2001:0db8:85a3:0000:0000:8a2e:0370:7334. Hexadecimal digits range from 0 to 9 and A to F.


NEW QUESTION # 190
What is an insider threat?

  • A. A vulnerability in an organization's network infrastructure.
  • B. A security breach caused by an external attacker.
  • C. A threat posed by an individual with authorized access to an organization's systems and data.
  • D. The accidental disclosure of sensitive information.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Insider threats refer to risks and vulnerabilities that arise from individuals who have authorized access to an organization's systems, networks, or data. These individuals may intentionally or unintentionally cause harm, such as stealing confidential information, sabotaging systems, or disclosing sensitive data to unauthorized entities.


NEW QUESTION # 191
Which of the following is a feature of cloud computing?

  • A. Data encryption
  • B. On-premises hosting
  • C. Physical server maintenance
  • D. Hardware provisioning

Answer: A

Explanation:
Option 1: Incorrect. On-premises hosting refers to hosting applications and data on local servers within an organization's physical infrastructure. It is not a feature of cloud computing.
Option 2: Incorrect. Hardware provisioning is the process of setting up and configuring the physical infrastructure required to run applications and store data. While this is an important aspect of cloud computing, it is not a specific feature of cloud computing.
Option 3: Correct. Data encryption is a feature of cloud computing that ensures the security and confidentiality of data stored and transmitted within the cloud. It protects sensitive information from unauthorized access.
Option 4: Incorrect. Physical server maintenance involves activities such as hardware repairs, upgrades, and maintenance tasks associated with physical servers. While these tasks are necessary for managing an on-premises infrastructure, they are not specific features of cloud computing.


NEW QUESTION # 192
Which cryptographic technique is used to ensure the integrity of data without the ability to reverse the process?

  • A. Asymmetric encryption
  • B. Hashing algorithm
  • C. Digital signature
  • D. Symmetric encryption

Answer: B

Explanation:
Hashing is a cryptographic technique where an input (data/message) is processed through an algorithm to produce a fixed-size output, known as a hash value. The key characteristic of hashing is that it is a one-way function, meaning that it is computationally infeasible to reverse the process and derive the original input from the hash value. Hashing is commonly used to verify data integrity, as even a small change in the input will result in a significantly different hash value.


NEW QUESTION # 193
What is the role of policies in vulnerability assessment?

  • A. They outline the consequences of not fixing vulnerabilities.
  • B. They define the rules and guidelines for vulnerability scanning.
  • C. They specify the criteria for prioritizing vulnerabilities.
  • D. They determine the frequency of vulnerability assessments.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Policies play a crucial role in vulnerability assessment by defining the rules and guidelines for conducting vulnerability scanning activities. These policies ensure consistency and provide direction on how to approach vulnerability assessments, including the scope, methodology, and frequency of the assessments.


NEW QUESTION # 194
Which security measure can prevent unauthorized devices from automatically connecting to a corporate network through unused switch ports?

  • A. NAT
  • B. VPN
  • C. VLAN trunking
  • D. Port security

Answer: D

Explanation:
The CCST Cybersecurity Study Guide explains that port security on switches can be configured to limit the number of MAC addresses allowed on a port, or to restrict it to specific devices.
"Port security can prevent unauthorized access by limiting or specifying the MAC addresses allowed to connect through a given switch port. This mitigates risks from rogue devices connecting to the network." (CCST Cybersecurity, Basic Network Security Concepts, Switch Security section, Cisco Networking Academy)


NEW QUESTION # 195
Which of the following is a preventive control that can help in reducing the risk of future incidents?

  • A. Implementing strong access controls and authentication mechanisms
  • B. Creating secure backups of critical data
  • C. Regularly updating antivirus signatures
  • D. Conducting periodic employee training on incident response

Answer: A

Explanation:
Implementing strong access controls and authentication mechanisms is a preventive control that can help reduce the risk of future incidents. By ensuring that only authorized individuals have access to systems and data, the likelihood of unauthorized access or malicious activity is minimized. While regularly updating antivirus signatures, conducting employee training, and creating secure backups are also important preventive measures, the focus here is on access controls and authentication mechanisms.


NEW QUESTION # 196
Which two basic metrics should be taken into consideration when assigning a severity to a vulnerability during an assessment? (Choose 2.)

  • A. The likelihood that an adversary can and will exploit the vulnerability
  • B. The time involved in choosing replacement software to replace older systems
  • C. The impacts that an exploit of the vulnerability will have on the organization
  • D. The age of the hardware running the software that contains the vulnerability

Answer: A,C

Explanation:
The CCST Cybersecurity course describes that risk scoring for vulnerabilities often involves likelihood and impact - similar to the CVSS (Common Vulnerability Scoring System) model.
"When prioritizing vulnerabilities, assess both the likelihood of exploitation and the potential impact to the organization. Likelihood measures how easy or probable it is for an adversary to exploit the weakness, while impact measures the consequences to confidentiality, integrity, and availability if exploitation occurs." (CCST Cybersecurity, Vulnerability Assessment and Risk Management, Risk Assessment and Prioritization section, Cisco Networking Academy) A is correct: Likelihood is a fundamental part of severity assessment.
B is correct: Impact determines how damaging an exploit would be.
C is incorrect: Time to choose replacement software is an operational consideration, not a severity metric.
D is incorrect: Hardware age may influence performance but does not directly define vulnerability severity.


NEW QUESTION # 197
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